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Europa League Conference Final/Champions League Final/Championship&League 2 Play Off Finals


andykeenan

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1 minute ago, Davkaus said:

Some are arguing it's a deflection, but not a deliberate play of the ball, but he slides in to try and win the ball, he means to play it, even if not exactly like that.

Should be a goal imo

Yeah, I agree with u on that, he slid in to try and get the ball and his knee passed it to Benzema, to me that is not a deflection

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1 minute ago, Peter Griffin said:

It is still offside if the ball that comes off the Liverpool player is a deflection, which is why I assume they gave it offside

Really? Feel like that can be abused...

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Fabinho didn’t intentionally play it, Konate intentionally blocked it onto Fabinho though.

No justification whether the last touch was intentional or not.

Edited by a m ole
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1 minute ago, sheepyvillian said:

Amazing, I didn't even know that. So that's only if the goalie is in front of the attacker?

It's any two players. Whether it's a keeper or not is irrelevant. The rule is there must be two players of the other side ahead of you when you receive a pass.

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1 minute ago, sheepyvillian said:

Amazing, I didn't even know that. So that's only if the goalie is in front of the attacker?

There has to be 2 players in front of the attacker.  In 99.99% of cases the goalkeeper is one of those players so you're basically looking at the last defender.  But those was one of those rare occasions the keeper was ahead of play. 

I still don't understand how he was offside though as there was no forward pass. Bloody nonsense. 

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2 minutes ago, Genie said:

I’m sure we’ve seen loads of goals in the PL where the ball “comes off” a defender and makes the attacker onside.

Deliberate play came into it after the whole Mings offside incident

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Just now, Lichfield Dean said:

It's any two players. Whether it's a keeper or not is irrelevant. The rule is there must be two players of the other side ahead of you when you receive a pass.

Has that always been part of the offside rule?

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6 minutes ago, Aston_Villan4 said:

Because they determined it wasn’t an intentional play by Fabinho. They say it was just a deflection 

I mean if your throwing your leg at the ball and connect with it is that not deliberate? 

Regardless he seems massively onside anyway, Steve Wonder has drawn the lines here:

 

Edited by penguin
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Just now, sidcow said:

There has to be 2 players in front of the attacker.  In 99.99% of cases the goalkeeper is one of those players so you're basically looking at the last defender.  But those was one of those rare occasions the keeper was ahead of play. 

I still don't understand how he was offside though as there was no forward pass. Bloody nonsense. 

That makes sense to me now.

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5 minutes ago, Lichfield Dean said:

I could have sworn there were two defenders ahead of him. But I guess they'll analyse it at half time.

Well, I've seen the freeze frame and there was only one. So I was wrong here.

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